| GyanCentral - The hub for engineering and law students - IIT-JEE, AIEEE, BITSAT, CLAT, AILET - 2012: Mock test on Constitution of India....Clat 2013 Sep 23rd 2012, 10:22 | GyanCentral - The hub for engineering and law students - IIT-JEE, AIEEE, BITSAT, CLAT, AILET - 2012 | | The most comprehensive career education and test preparation forums in india. | | | Mock test on Constitution of India....Clat 2013 Sep 23rd 2012, 10:20 1. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes untouchability? a. Article 42 b. Article 15 c. Article 14 d. Article 17 2. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission? a. Prime Minister b. President c. Home Minister d. Minister of Planning 3. Who was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly? a. B.N. Rau b. Dr. Ambedkar c . Dr. Rajendra Prasad d. Sachidanand Sinha 4. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provisions in the Constitution for the first time? a. 51st Amendment b. 52nd Amendment c. 53rd Amendment d. 54th Amendment 5. Which one of the following does not find mention in the Preamble to the Constitution? a. Dignity of the individual b. Dignity of the Constitution c. Fraternity d. Unity and integrity of the Nation 6. After independence, the first State organized on the basis of language is a. Tamilnadu b. Kerala c. Karnataka d. Andhra Pradesh 7. Lame-Duck session of Parliament means a. The first session of Parliament after the elections to the Lok Sabha b. The last session of Parliament before the dissolution of the Lok Sabha c. The session of Parliament in which the no-confidence motion is discussed. d. A session of Parliament, which fails to pass any Bill 8. If a no-confidence motion is passed against a Minister a. The concerned Minister has to resign b. The whole council of Ministers has to resign c. The Lok Sabha has to be dissolved d. The Prime Minister and the concerned Minister have to resign 9. The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to a. Christian Community b. Anglo-Indian Community c. Business Community d. Sikh Community 10. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly? a. Dr. Ambedkar b. Dr. Rajendra Prasad c. c. Jawahar Lal Nehru d. B.N. Rau 11. Who participates in the election of the Vice-President? a. Members of the Lok Sabha b. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha c. Members of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha d. Members of Legislative Assemblies of the States 12. Which of the following directive principles of State Policy were added by 42nd Amendment? 1. Participation of workers in the management of industry 2. Minimizing inequality of income and status 3. Protection of environment 4. Free legal aid to poor Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,3 and 4 b. 1,2 and 3 c. 1,2 and 4 d. 2,3 and 4 13. Which of the following are the types of authority attributed to the President of India? a. Real and Popular b. Titular and de-jure c. Political and nominal d. Constitutional and nominal 14. Which of the following provisions are not included in the Indian Constitution? 1. President can suspend any of the fundamental rights during emergency 2. Prime Minister can dismiss any Chief Minister 3. States have power to amend any law of Parliament on a subject in the concurrent list with the assent of the President 4. Governor can reserve any Bill for consideration by the President. Choose the correct answer form the codes given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 1 and 4 15. Which one of the following are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha? 1. To introduce Money bills 2. To ratify the declaration of emergency 3. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 4. To impeach the President Choose the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 3 and 4 16. It is mandatory for the Governor to reserve a Bill for the consideration by the President if such a Bill affects a. The rate of land revenue b. Powers of High Court c. The powers of the Advocate General of the State d. The amount of salary paid to the Members of Legislative Assembly. 17. Which is the most of important reason to consider India as a Secular State? a. Peoples of different religions live in India b. Government works for the welfare of people of all religions c. Religion is separated from politics d. Minority religions are given special protection 18. The constitution of India Provides for free and compulsory education to which one of the following groups of children? a. 3-9 years b. 6-18 years c. 6-14 years d. 4-10 years 19. Which of the following statements correctly defines the Judicial Review? a. The authority of the Court to punish political offenders b. The authority of the Courts to correct the errors of the government c. The authority of the Courts to issue various writs d. The authority of the Courts to interpret the legality of laws 20. The Doctrine that the Fundamental Rights can not be amended under Article 368 was propounded by the Supreme Court in a. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras b. Keshvanand Bharati Vs. State of Kerala c. Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab d. Maneka Vs. Union of India 21. What was the exact Constitutional Status of the Indian Republic on Jan. 26, 1950? a. A Democratic Republic b. A Sovereign Democratic Republic c. A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic d. A Sovereign Social Secular Democratic Republic 22. Who amongst the following acts as the presiding officer of the House without being its member? a. Vice-President of India b. Speaker of Lok Sabha c. Chairman of the Legislative Council d. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly 23. Who first described the Indian Political system as one party dominance to explain the congress party's hegemony in India? a. W.H. Morris-Jones b. Rajni Kothari c. Myron Weiner d. Lloyd Rudolph and Susan Rudolph 24. In which of the following lists of the Indian Constitution is the subject of Population control and family planning included? a. Union List b. Concurrent List c. State List d. Residuary List 25. Under which of the following circumstances can the President declare an emergency? 1. External Aggression 2. Armed Rebellion 3. Government Instability 4. Financial Crisis Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 1,3 and 4 c. 2,3 and 4 d. 1,2 and 4 26. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the President of India be impeached? a. 356 b. 75 c. 76 d. 61 27. The source of all political power in India lies with a. Parliament b. The Lok Sabha c. The people d. The Constitution 28. The Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of Basic structure of the Constitution in the a. Golaknath case in 1967 b. Sajjan Singh case in 1965 c. Shakari Prasad case in 1951 d. Keshvanand Bharati case in 1973 29. Under which Five year plans was the introduction of Panchayati Raj suggested? a. First Five Year Plan b. Second Five Year Plan c. Third Five Year Plan d. Fourth Five Year Plan 30. The authority to alter the boundaries of States in India rests with a. State Government b. President c. Prime Minister d. Parliament 31. Which of the following federal principles are found in the Indian Federation? 1. Equal representation of states in the Second house of Parliament 2. Double citizenship 3. Bicameral Legislature at federal level 4. Independent and Impartial Judiciary Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 2,3 and 4 c. 3 and 4 d. 1 and 3 32. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with a. Judicial Reforms b. Electoral Reforms c. Centre-State Relations d. Financial Reforms 33. The authority empowered to make laws in respect to the matters not included in any of the three lists is a. State Legislatures b. Parliament c. Supreme Court d. President 34. Writs can be issued for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights by a. District Courts b. President c. The Supreme Court only c. Both the Supreme Court and the High Courts 35. Who among the following was the President of Congress during independence? a. Jawahar Lal Nehru b. Mahatma Gandhi c. Maulana Azad d. Sardar Patel 36. Which of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporate Abolition of Untouchability? a. The Right to religion b. The right to equality c. The right against exploitation d. The right to freedom 37. If the President is to resign from office, he should address his letter of resignation to a. The Prime Minister b. The Vice President c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha d. The Chief Justice of India 38. The Rajya Sabha can take initiative in a. Censuring a Minister b. Creating a new all India service c. Considering Money Bills d. Appointing judges 39. The joint sitting of Indian Parliament for transacting Legislative business is presided over by a. The President of India b. The Senior most Member of Parliament c. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha d. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha 40. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to address his letter of resignation to a. Prime Minister of India b. President of India c. Dy. Speaker of the Lok Sabha d. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 41. To which of the following categories of Rights does not Right to property belong? a. Legal Right b. Fundamental Right c. Human Right d. Natural Right 42. Seats in the Lok Sabha are not reserved for a. Scheduled Castes b. Scheduled tribes c. Scheduled tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam d. Anglo-Indians 43. Which of the following statements describes a Hung Parliament a. A Parliament in which no party has clear majority b. The Prime Minister has resigned but Parliament is not dissolved c. Parliament lacks quorum to conduct business d. A lame duck Parliament 44. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Account Committee of Indian Parliament? a. The Prime Minister b. The President c. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha d. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 45. The Fundamental duties of Indian citizens have been a. Originally provided by the Constitution b. Included in the Constitution by the 44th Amendment c. Included in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment d. Inserted into the Constitution by a Judgement of the Supreme Court 46. Which of the following cases is related to Fundamental Rights? a. State of Bombay Vs. Balsara (1951) b. Sharma Vs. Krishna (1959) c. State of West Bengal Vs. Union of India (1963) d. Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab (1967) 47. The normal term of the Lok Sabha may be extended by a. An Act passed by the Parliament b. An order of the Supreme Court c. An order of the President of India d. An order of the Prime Minister of India 48. Freedom of Speech under the Indian Constitution is subject to reasonable restriction on the ground of protection of a. Sovereignty and integrity of the country b. The dignity of the office of the Prime Minister c. The dignity of council of ministers d. The dignity of constitutional functionaries 49. Under the provisions of the Indian Constitution a community can be declared a minority community on the basis of a. Religion only b. Either religion or language c. Either language or caste d. Either religion or race 50. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? a. Equality before Law: Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens b. Altering the name of a state: power of Parliament c. Creating a new state: power o Parliament d. Equality of opportunity in Public Employment: Guaranteed only to Indian citizens 51. Which of the following are not included in the right to freedom of religion in the constitution of India? 1. Freedom of conscience and right to practice and propagate religion 2. Levying of taxes or use of funds of the government for the promotion or maintenance of any religion 3. Establishment and maintenance of religion and charitable institutions 4. Imparting of religions instructions in any government maintained institutions. Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 1,2 and 2 c. 1,3 and 4 d. 2 and 4 52. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? a. To respect the national anthem b. To safeguard public property c. To protect monuments and places of national importance d. To protect and improve the natural environment 53. What type of voting is held in the Vidhan Sabha to elect members of the Rajya Sabha? a. Secret Voting b. Open Voting c. List Voting d. Cumulative Voting 54. Which of the following is/are among the Directive Principles of State Policy? 1. The state shall strive to promote science and technology for development 2. The State shall endeavor to secure for citizens a uniform civil code throughout India 3. The State shall try to develop population policy and family planning programmes 4. The State shall take steps to promote tourism Select the correct answer fro the code given below: a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 2 only d. 1,2,3 and 4 55. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? a. Protection of childhood and youth from exploitation – Article 39 b. Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases – Article 41 c. Provisions for free an compulsory education for children below 14 yeas – Article 45 d. Protection of monuments and places of national importance – Article 48A 56. The Impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in a. Either house of Parliament b. In a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament c. The Lok Sabha alone d. The Rajya Sabha alone 57. The rajya sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha a. In the matter of creating New All India Services b. In amending the constitution c. In the removal of government d. In making cut motions 58. Which is the correct sequence of the following? 1. Scheduled Caste order 2. Untouchability offences act 3. Protection of Civil Rights Act 4. Communal order of Government of Madras Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 3,4,1 and 2 b. 4,1,2 and 3 c. 1,2,3 and 4 d. 2,3,4 and 1 59. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers of legislation is correct in the context of India? 1. The lok sabha has exclusive power to make law on any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List 2. The Residuary power of legislation is laid down in Article 248 of the Constitution 3. Residuary powers include that power of imposing taxes not mentioned in any of the three lists 4. Article 248 of the Constitution provides for among other things, the power to establish additional courts Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 2 and 3 60. Which of the following is correct regarding the procedure of passing of Bills in Parliament? a. A Bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse because of prorogation of two Houses of Parliament b. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha and passed by the Rajya Sabh and passed by the Rajya Sabha shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha c. A Bill pending in the Rajya sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha d. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has been passed by the Lok Sabha shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 61. Which of the following is constitutionally obligatory on the part of Prime Minister of India? a. As the President is the Supreme Commander of the defence forces, the Prime Minister has to take all major decisions regarding defence only after prior approval by the President b. The Prime Minister has to communicate to the President all decisions of the Cabinet relating to administration and proposals of administration c. As the Ministers are appointed by the President the Prime Minister has to go by Presidential discretion in the allocation of business among Ministers d. The Prime Minister, if he happens to be a leader of a party not having the required majority should prove majority strength in both Houses of Parliament within the period stipulated by the President. 62. Which of the following statements regarding judiciary in India are correct? 1. In India, judiciary is not a part of the state 2. In India, the pattern and designation of subordinate courts in states is not uniform 3. Munsiff courts have both civil and criminal jurisdiction 4. The pattern of subordinate courts in metropolitan areas is the same as that in districts Select the correct answer from the code given below a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4 63. Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct? 1. The opinion of the Supreme Court may be sought by the President on any question of law or fact 2. In case the opinion of the Supreme Court is sought, it is bound to give it 3. The advice given by the Supreme Court is binding on the President since 42nd Amendment 4. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can also be exercised over disputes arising out of references made over pre-constitutional treaties Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1 and 4 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2,3 and 4 64. A judge of the High Court can be removed from office during his tenure by a. The Governor, if the State Legislature passes a resolution to this effect by two thirds majority b. The President, on the basis of a resolution passed by Parliament by special majority c. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court on the recommendation of the Parliament d. The President on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court 65. Judicial Review in India is based on a. Procedure established by law b. Due process of law c. Rule of law d. Precedents and conventions 66. Which one of the following is not included in the State List in the Constitutional of India? a. Police b. Law and Order c. Prisons d. Criminal Procedure Code 67. Which of the following are the matters on which the Indian Parliament has the power to modify provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority? 1. Alteration of names and boundaries of states 2. Appointment of the additional judges 3. Abolition of the second Chamber of the State Legislature 4. Administration of Scheduled Areas Choose correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 1,2 and 4 c. 1,3 and 4 d. 2,3 and 4 68. Which of the following taxes are levied and collected by the Government of India and assigned to the States? 1. Taxes on Railway fares and freights 2. Taxes on the sale and purchase of newspapers and on advertisements published therein 3. Taxes on agricultural income 4. Taxes on professions, trades, calling and employment Choose the correct answer from the code given below a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4 69. What is the procedure required to be followed for the abolition of an existing Legislative Council in a State? 1. The Rajya Sabha must pass resolution to that effect 2. The State Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution to that effect by a special majority prescribed in the Constitution 3. Parliament must enact a law abolishing the Legislative Council 4. The State Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution by ordinary majority as prescribed in the Constitution. Choose the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1 and 4 70. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of Traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Protection of the interests of minorities 3. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines 4. Abolition of untouchability Choose the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 1 and 4 d. 2,3 and 4 71. The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the Fundamental Rights. Which one of the following shall not be construed as law for this purpose? a. Ordinance b. By-Law c. Rule d. Constitutional Amendments 72. Which one of the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India? a. Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property b. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India c. Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms d. Freedom to practise any trade or profession 73. Which of the following regarding the Rajya Sabha are correct? 1. It is not subject to dissolution 2. Its members have a term of 6 years 3. One-third of its members retire every two years 4. Its members shall not be less than 25 years of age Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 2,3 and 4 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 4 74. Which one of the following statements regarding the Fundamental duties contained in the Indian Constitution is correct? 1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction 2. Fundamental duties have formed a part of the Indian Constitution since its adoption 3. Fundamental duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of Swarn Singh Committee 4. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India Choose the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1,2 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4 75. The authority to specify as to which castes shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes rests with the a. President b. Government c. Prime Minister d. National Commission for the Scheduled Castes 76. The question whether any and if so what advice was tendered by the Council of Ministers to the president a. Shall not be inquired into by any court b. May be inquired into by any of the High Court c. Shall be inquired into by the Supreme Court only d. May be inquired into by either House of Parliament 77. Decision on questions as to disqualifications of membership of either House of Parliament rests with the a. Election Commission on the recommendations of the Speaker/Chairman b. House of Parliament Concerned c. Chief Justice of India d. President after consultation with the Election Commission 78. What is the maximum possible strength of the Legislative Assembly of a State? a. 400 members b. 425 members c. 500 members d. 545 members 79. For how many seats was the election completed for the 14th Lok Sabha? a. 550 b. 543 c. 545 d. 542 80. The Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in- a. Approving a proclamation of emergency b. Creation and abolition of States c. The election of Vice-President d. Authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List 81. The quorum to hold a meeting of the House of State Legislature shall be a. Thirty members or one tenth of total membership whichever is less b. One-half of the total membership c. One-tenth of the total membership of the House d. Ten members or one-tenth of total membership of the House, whichever is more 82. Which one of the following shall not be considered an adequate ground for the issue of a proclamation of national emergency? a. War b. External aggression c. Armed rebellion d. Internal disturbance 83. Which one of the following is directly related to the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? a. Appeals made in Civil, Criminal and Constitutional Cases b. Appeals made in disputes between the Union and a State on one side and other states on the other side. c. Adjudication of disputes between the Union and the States d. Adjudication of disputes between the States 84. Which one of the following regarding the judicial review in India is not correct? a. A case must be brought before the Supreme Court regarding the validity of a law b. Unanimous opinion of all the judges is necessary for declaring a law null and void c. Legislative enactments and executive orders may be struck down by the Supreme Court d. This power is implicit in the provisions of Article 13 of the Constitution. 85. Which one of the following items comes under the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution? a. Inter-state rivers b. Trade Unions c. Citizenship d. Local Government 86. Up to which year is the present strength of membership of the Lok Sabha uncha ngeable? a. 2026 b. 2010 c. 2015 d. 2009 87. In which of the following categories of cases has the Supreme Court of India the power to decide 1. A reference made by the President on a question of law or fact 2. A case involving a substantial question of law of general importance 3. A case where constitutionality of any law has been challenged 4. A case involving interpretation of the Constitution Choose the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 1,3 and 4 c. 1,2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4 88. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India is not correct? a. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament b. In matters of residuary powers, the Constitution follows the provisions devised by the British government before independence c. The final authority to decide whether a matter falls under the residuary powers or not is Parliament d. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of Governor-General 89. Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which the parliamentary system of government in India operates? 1. Nominal Executive head 2. Vice-President as Chairman of the Upper house 3. Real Executive Authority with the Council of Ministers 4. Executive responsibility to the lower House Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 1,2 and 4 c. 1,3 and 4 d. 2,3 and 4 90. As per the 87th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 which census forms the basis of delimitation of election constituencies? a. 2001 b. 1981 c. 1991 d. 1971 91. Which one of the following has enhanced its powers from delegated legislation? a. The legislature b. The legislative committee c. The civil service d. The council of Ministers 92. Which of the following statements regarding the Article 22 of the Constitution of India are correct? 1. The fundamental right conferred by this article protects persons against arrests and detention in certain cases. 2. This fundamental right is guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens. 3. The rights guaranteed under this provision are applicable to those arrested under laws providing for preventive detention. 4. The rights guaranteed under this article are not applicable to enemy aliens. Choose the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 1,2 and 4 d. 1 and 3 93. A writ of prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Court which a. Affects the subject of production and consumption of liquor b. Prohibits are police from arresting a person c. Prohibits the administrative authority from taking a particular action d. Prohibits a quasi-judicial authority from proceeding with a case. 94. Which one of the following is not included as a Fundamental duty in the Constitution of India? a. To Cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle. b. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform c. To protect the minorities d. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. 95. Which one of the following was not included originally as the Directive principle in the Constitution of India? a. Citizens right to an adequate means of livelihood b. Free and compulsory education to children under 14 years of age c. Free legal aid d. Prohibition of the slaughter of cows and calves. 96. If President Rule under Article 356 is proposed in a State- a. The Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved b. Article 19 is suspended in that State c. Parliament assumes the power to legislate on the State List d. The President can make laws relating to that State. 97. An ordinary Bill passed by Parliament is returned by the President to Parliament for reconsideration. It is passed again by Parliament without any change. Now the a. The President is free to withhold his assent again b. The Bill will automatically lapse c. The Bill will be referred to the Supreme Court d. The President shall not withhold his assent. 98. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet atleast a. Thrice each year with no more than two months between sessions. b. Twice each year with no more than three months between sessions c. Twice each year with no more than four months between sessions d. Twice each year with no more than 6 months between sessions 99. According to the Constitution of India, a new All India Service can be instituted with initiative taken by a. More than two-thirds of the States b. The Inter-State Council c. The Lok Sabha d. The Rajya Sabha 100. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees in India acts as a watchdog on departmental expenditure and irregularities? a. Estimates Committee b. Committee on Public Undertakings c. Public Account Committee d. Committee on Public Assurances 101. Legal provisions of the Indian Constitution relating to the formation of new States can be enacted by- a. Two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament b. A Parliamentary resolution which should be ratified by a majority of State Legislatures c. A simple majority in each House of Parliament d. A Three-fourths majority in each House Parliament 102. The Supreme Court of India declares by issuing a writ that the respondent was not entitled to an office he was holding or a privilege he was exercising. Which writ is that? a. Habeas-Corpus b. Prohibition c. Quo-warranto d. Certiorari 103. Which of the following are the main jurisdiction of the High Court of a State? 1. Original jurisdiction 2. Appellate jurisdiction 3. Supervisory jurisdiction 4. Advisory jurisdiction Choose the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 2,3 and 4 c. 1,3 and 4 d. 1,2 and 4 104. Which of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India are correct? 1. It has the power to entertain appeal from any court or tribunal within India. 2. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on any question of fact or law referred to it by the President 3. Salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are subject to vote by Parliament. 4. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within India. Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 2,3 and 4 d. 1,2 and 4 105. Which of the following writs is issued by an appropriate judicial body in order to free a person who has been illegally detained? a. Quo Warranto b. Mandamus c. Certiorari d. Habeas Corpus 106. Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution? 1. Multiple procedures for amendment 2. States not empowered to initiate amendments 3. Certain amendments have to be passed just by State Legislatures 4. The Joint sittings of Parliament to solve disputes regarding constitutional amendments. Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 4 b. 1 and 2 c. 2,3 and 4 d. 1,3 and 4 107. In India, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of a. Members of both Houses of Parliament b. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament c. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament State Legislatures d. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies. 108. The Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from his office during his tenure by a. The Chief Justice of India if some charges are proved against him b. The President on the basis of a resolution of the Union Cabinet c. A committee consisting of the Chief Justice of India, Law Minister of India and the Vice-President of India. d. The President on the basis of resolution passed by Parliament by special majority 109. The quorum required in the Rajya Sabha is a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 126 110. There is a constitutional requirement to have a minister in the charge of Tribal Welfare for the States of a. Assam, Nagaland and Manipur b. Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan c. Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa d. Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya 111. How many seats did the Indian National Congress win on its own in elections to the 14th Lok Sabha? a. 182 b. 212 c. 114 d. 145 112. On the subject of Income Tax a. The Union Government has more powers than the state governments b. The State governments have more power than the Union government c. Both the Union and the State governments have equal powers d. Only the Union Government has powers 113. Which of the following is a correct statement about the President of India? a. The President of India can address both Houses of Parliament, can summon the Houses of Parliament and can send message to either House of Parliament. b. Can summon the Houses of Parliament but cannot send message to either Houses of parliament. c. Can send message to either House of Parliament but cannot summon the Houses of Parliament d. Cannot send message to either House of Parliament or Summon the Houses of Parliament. 114. Which one of the following committees is not a standing committee of Parliament? a. Public Accounts Committee b. Estimates committee c. Committee on Public Undertakings d. Consultative committee to the Ministry of Finance. 115. Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by a. A proclamation of National Emergency b. An act passed by Parliament c. An amendment of the Constitution d. The judicial decisions of the Supreme Court 116. Which one of the following is not a constitutional prerogative of the President of India? a. Returning a Legislative Bill for reconsideration b. Returning of Financial Bill for reconsideration c. Dissolving the Lok Sabha d. Summoning the Rajya Sabha 117. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by a. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha b. All members of the Rajya Sabha c. Elected members of Parliament d. All members of Parliament 118. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is guaranteed only to the citizens and not to the foreigners? a. Equality before law and equal protection of law b. Freedom of speech and expression c. Right to life and personal liberty d. Right to freedom of religion 119. Puducherry, before joining the Indian Union, was under the control of— a. Goa b. England c. France d. India 120. Which of the following expenditure shall be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India? 1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister and other expenditure relating to his office. 3. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Dy. Chairman of the Council of States. 4. The salary and allowances of the Speaker and the Dy. Speaker of the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 2,3 and 4 c. 1,3 and 4 d. 1,2 and 4 121. Which one of the following was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the constitution? a. Right to equality b. Right against exploitation c. Right to constitutional remedies d. Right to Freedom of religion 122. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of the a. Ministry of Home Affairs b. Prime Minister's office c. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs d. The Speakers of the Lok Sabha 123. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was initiated in 1983 with the pioneering efforts of— a. Justice R.N. Mishra b. Justice Chandrachud c. Justice P.N. Bhagwati d. Justice Venkatswami 124. A pressure group is distinct from a political party in as much as it does not directly a. Contest elections b. Finance a candidate c. Propagate a policy d. Resort to mobilization of opinion 125. Which of the following is not generally considered as a part of the right to equality? a. Equal protection of law b. Equality of opportunity for all c. Equality of right to satisfaction of basic needs of all d. Equality of treatment in all circumstances. 126. Which of the following are the Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution of India? 1. To follow the principle of morality 2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty and integrity of India. 3. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture 4. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence Select the correct answer from the code given below a. 1,2,3 and 4 b. 1 and 4 c. 1,2 and 3 d. 2,3 and 4 127. Which one he following statements regarding the status of the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is correct? a. Directive Principles cannot get priority over Fundamental Rights in any case. b. Directive Principles always get priority over Fundamental Rights. c. Fundamental Rights always get priority over Directive Principles. d. In some cases, Directive Principles may get priority over Fundamental Rights. 128. Who among the following do not participate in the election of the President of India? a. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha b. Elected members of the Lok Sabha c. Elected members of the Vidhan Sabha d. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha 129. The responsibility of the Prime Minister of the Lok Sabha is a. Intermittent b. Indirect c. At the time of election d. Direct, continuous and collective 130. The basic problem in the working of parliamentary system in India arises out of a. Lack of a cohesive and viable party system b. The absence of an efficient and independent judiciary c. Lack of clear constitutional provisions d. Weak political executive due to its independent on Legislature. 131. The doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution as a principle of judicial review a. Is strictly in accord with the principle of procedure established by law b. Is inconsistent with the principle of due process of law c. Accepts the theory that the Legislature is the supreme law making body d. Assumes the power of judging the wisdom of the sovereign Legislature. 132. Which of the following are included in Article 78 of the Indian Constitution defining the duties of Prime Minister? 1. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for Legislation. 2. To take prior presidential sanction for the Budget before submitting it to Parliament 3. To furnish the information called by the President regarding administration of the affairs of the union. 4. If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers a matter on which a Minister has taken a decision without submitting the same for consideration by the Council. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a. 1 and 2 b. 1,3 and 4 c. 2 and 4 d. 1 and 3 133. Which one of the following is not the means of enforcing responsibility upon the Cabinet? a. Questioning Ministers b. Vote of censure c. Call attention motion d. No-Confidence motion 134. The members of which one of the following standing committees are chosen exclusively from the members of the Lok Sabha? a. Public Accounts Committee b. Committee on Public undertakings c. Committee on Estimates d. Committee on Delegated Legislation 135. Who is the first law Officer of the Government of India a. The Chief Justice of India b. Union Law Minister c. Attorney General of India d. Law Secretary 136. A writ issued by a court to some inferior authority to transfer the matter to it for its proper consideration, is called- a. Certiorari b. Mandamus c. Quo Warranto d. Prohibition 137. The Legislative Council of a State can be abolished or created by the a. The President of India on the recommendation of Parliament b. The Legislative Assembly of the State concerned c. Parliament through a Simple Legislation d. Parliament on the recommendation of the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned 138. The Vice-President of India can be removed from office- a. By a resolution initiated in the Council of States and approved by the Lok Sabha b. By a resolution in the Lok Sabha, agreed to by the Council of States c. By a resolution adopted by the two Houses meeting in a joint session d. Following a formal process of impeachment 139. According to the Constitution, which one of the following rights cannot be taken away during emergency? a. Right to speak b. Right to freedom of movement c. Right to personal liberty d. Right to organize meetings 140. Which one of the following is not an objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy? a. To establish a welfare State b. To ensure socio-economic justice c. To establish a religious state d. To establish a secular state 141. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the responsibility of the State towards international peace and security? a. Fundamental Rights b. Directive principles of State Policy c. Emergency provisions d. Preamble to the Constitution. 142. What party won the largest number of seats for Maharashtra Assembly in the elections held in October 2004? a. Shiv Sena b. Nationalist Congress Party c. Bharatiya Janata Party d. Indian National Congress 143. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution belongs to a different category? a. Article 14 b. Article 15 c. Article 16 d. Article 19 144. Who has control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India? a. Comptroller and auditor general of India b. Finance Minister of India c. Authorized Ministers d. None of the above 145. Seats allocated to Bihar in the House of the people is the sum total of the seats allocated to a. Assam and Madhya Pradesh b. Assam and Tamil Nadu c. Karnataka and Rajasthan d. Punjab and West Bengal 146. Acting Chief Justice of India is appointed by a. Chief justice of India b. Chief Justice of India with previous consent of the President c. President d. President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India 147. Zonal councils have been created by a. The constitution b. An Act of Parliament c. A Government Resolution d. The National Development Council 148. Money Bill has been defined in the Constitution under Article a. 109 b. 110 c. 111 d. 112 149. Which one of the following is set up by the Constitution of India a. Planning Commission b. National Development Council c. Zonal Councils d. None of the above 150. The Indian Constitution does not clearly provide for the freedom of press but this freedom is implicit in Article a. 19(i)a b. 19(i)b c. 19(i)c d. 19(i)d 151. Who among the following can be removed by the same procedure? 1. Judges of the Supreme Court 2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India 3. Chairman of Union Public Service Commission 4. Chairman of Finance Commission 5. Chief election commissioner Select the correct answer from the code given below. a. 1 and 2 b. 2,3 and 4 c. 3,4 and 5 d. 1,2 and 5 152. Which one of the following is in the 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution. a. List of Languages b. Subjects in the Union, State and Concurrent List c. List of Oaths and affirmation d. Duties of the President and the Vice-President 153. Which statement is not correct regarding the 73rd amendment (Panchayati Raj). a. M.L.As. M.L.Cs and M.P.s have been excluded from the membership of Panchayat bodies at all levels. b. Provision has been made for a Finance Commission in every State c. One-third seats have been reserved for women at all levels. d. The Panchayat bodies have been given a fixed term of five years. 154. What political alliance or party won the largest number of seats forBhiar Assembly in the elections held in February 2005.? a. Rashtriya Janata Dal b. National Democratic alliance c. Lok Jan Shakti d. Indian National Congress 155. Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Union State Relations? 1. Rajamannar Committee 2. Sarkaria Commission 3. Tarkunde Committee Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3 156. The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of adhoc judges in the a. Supreme Court b. High Court c. District Court d. All the above 157. Which of the following States have bicameral legislature? 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Bihar 3. Karnataka 4. Maharashtra 5. Tamilnadu 6. U.P Select the correct answer from the code given below; a. 2,3,4 and 6 b. 1,2,3 and 6 c. 3,4,5 and 6 d. 1,3,4 and 6 158. Which one of the following articles makes provision for the reservation of SC/ST in government services? a. 332 b. 333 c. 334 d. 335 159. Zero Hour in the working of Indian Parliament means a. The first hour of the session b. The period when the privilege motion is accepted c. The period before the question hour d. The interval between the end of question hour and the taking up of the next agenda. 160. Judicial activism is related to a. Committed Judiciary b. Public interest litigation c. Judicial Review d. Judicial Independence 161. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights mentioned in the Indian Constitution is available to Indian citizens only? a. Protection from discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth b. Right against exploitation c. Equality before law d. Freedom of religion 162. The Constitution makes allocation of seats among different states in the a. Lok Sabha b. Rajya Sabha c. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha d. Constitution is silent on this issue 163. Adhoc judges are appointed in Supreme Court of India if a. There is no quorum of judges available to hold or continue any session of the court b. Some judges go on long leave c. There is abnormal increase in the number of cases pending in the court. d. No one is available for permanent appointment. 164. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India include Right to Education in the Right to Life? a. U.P. state Vs. Abdul Samad, 1962. b. Frank Anthony Public School Employees Association Vs. Indian Union, 1986 c. Mohini Jain Vs. Karnataka State 1992 d. Ramanuj Vs. Tamilnadu State, 1961. 165. Article 21 of the Constitution is violated if there is a. Inordinate delay by the State in bringing an accused to trial b. Imprisonment of a declared insane c. Impounding of a citizen's passport for an indefinite period of time d. All the above 166. The maximum number of unstarred questions for a day in the Lok Sabha has been fixed at 230. What is this number in the Rajya Sabha? a. 230 b. 250 c. 260 d. No limit has been fixed 167. Consider the following statement with regard to preventive detention in India and point out which of these are correct by using the codes given below: 1. The Indian Constitution authorizes Parliament to make law providing for preventive detention in connection with the maintenance of public order 2. Under preventive detention, after a certain period, the trial of the detainee becomes necessary 3. The person arrested under preventive detention must be given opportunity to represent against the order of detention 4. Normally, a person arrested under preventive detention can be detained for a maximum period of two months. a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2,3 and 4 168. In which part/parts of the Indian Constitution, has economic justice been declared as the of the Constitution a. Preamble and Fundamental Rights b. Preamble and directive principles c. Fundamental Rights and Directive principles d. Preamble, fundamental rights and directive principles 169. What is the minimum strengths of the Legislative assemblies of India prescribed by the Constitution a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 80 170. Which of the following committees recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? a. Barua Committee b. Ramaswamy Committee c. Sikri Committee d. Swarn Singh Committee 171. Which of the following types of equalities have been attempted at by the Constitution makers through Articles 17 and 18? a. Economic equality b. Social equality c. Political equality d. Religions equality 172. The impeachment of the Indian President is a a. Judicial procedure b. Quasi-judicial procedure c. Legal procedure d. Quasi-legal procedure 173. A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a term of a. 5 years b. 6 years c. 6 years or until he attains the age of 62 years which ever is earlier d. 6 years or until he attains the age of 65 years, which ever is earlier 174. Which one of the following is an extra-constitutional body? a. Language Commission b. Planning Commission c. Election Commission d. Finance Commission 175. In the last few decades Indian States have asked for more powers in a. Legislative Sector b. Administrative Sector c. Financial Sector d. Executive Sector 176. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio chairman of which of the following parliamentary committees? a. The Committee of Privileges b. The Rules Committee c. The committee on Public undertakings d. The committee on Private members Bills and Resolutions. 177. Who can remove a judge of a High Court? a. President on his own b. Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister c. The President on the advice of the Chief Justice of India d. The President on the resolution of Parliament passed by special majority. 178. Which one of the following does not have reservation in State Legislature? a. Scheduled Castes b. Scheduled Tribes c. Anglo-Indian Community d. Backward Classes 179. In which of the following committees, are members from both the Houses of Parliament represented? a. The Estimates Committee b. The Public Accounts Committee c. The Committee on Government Assurance d. The Business Advisory Committee 180. The Panchayati Raj is based on the Pirnciple of a. Decentralisation b. Deconcentration c. Democratic Centralism d. Democratic Decentralisation 181. Which one of the following is not an attribute of Local Self Government a. Statutory Status b. General Purpose c. Power to raise Finances d. Sovereignty 182. Which of the following States have equal seats in the House of the People? a. Punjab and Assam b. Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu c. Gujarat and Rajasthan d. Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal 183. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court if it a. Can take away any Fundamental Right b. Violates the basic structure of the Constitution c. Replaces the parliamentary system with presidential one d. All the above 184. The term social justice has enabled the Supreme Court of India to uphold Legislation a. To remove economic inequalities b. To provide a decent standard of living to the working people c. To protect the interests of weaker sections of society d. All the above 185. Which one of the following writs will be issued by the court in case of illegal detention. a. Habeas Corpus b. Mandamus c. Prohibition d. Quo-Warranto 186. In India, the right against exploitation implies. a. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. b. Prohibition of harmful employment of children in factories. c. Both the above d. None of the above 187. The Council of Ministers is to aid and advice the President, but the a. The President is not bound by the advice. b. The President may take his own decisions c. The President may not seek the advice for reconsideration d. The President may sent back the advice for reconsideration 188. The comptroller and Auditor General of India has been considered as a. Friend, philosopher and guide of all Parliamentary Committees b. Friend, philosopher and guide of Public Accounts Committee c. Friend, philosopher and guide of the Council of Ministers d. Friend, philosopher and guide of Bureaucracy. 189.Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty under the Constitution? a.Protection of public property and abjuring violence. b.To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. c.To promote social justice d.To abide and respect the Constitution. 190.Who among the following makes appointments to All India Services? a. The President of India b. Parliament c. The Council of Ministers d. The U.P.S.C. 191.Which of the following are the functions of the Supreme Court of India 1. Protection of Fundamental Rights of citizens. 2. Judicial Review 3. Grant of clemency to condemned prisoners 4. Deciding disputes between the States Select the correct answer from the code given below: a. 1,2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 1,2 and 4 d. 3 and 4. 192. Which of the following rights can be claimed only by the citizens of India? 1. Freedom of speech 2. Right to form associat 3. Equality before law 4. Freedom to assembly peacefully without arms Select your answer using the code given below: a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,4 c. 1,2,4 d. 1,3,4 193.While officiating for the President, the Vice – President of India will a. Also discharge his functions as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha b. Not discharge the functions as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha c. Nominate a member of the Rajya Sabha for his choice to discharge functions of Chairman of Rajya Sabha d. Decide about this matter in his discretion. 194.Which one of the following is not appointed by the Governor? a.The Chief Minister b.Advocate General c.Member of State Pubic Service Commission d.Judges of the High Court. 195.Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? a. First Schedule – List of State and Union Territories of Union b. Second Schedule – Functions and powers of Election Commission c. Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between the Union and the States d. Tenth Schedule – Anti defection Law. 196.The Planning Commission was established by a. An act of Parliament b. An ordinance issued by the President c. A resolution of Union Council of Ministers d. The provisions of the Constitution. 197.The objective of Audit is to examine and monitor the expenditure made by a.The executive b.The Legislature c.The Judiciary d.All the above 198.Which one of the following was not included in the Fundamental Rights as given in the Constitution of 1950? a. Right to property b. Right to freedom of speech c. Right to education d. Right against exploitation. 199.How many subjects have been included in the 11th Schedule of Constitution, under the jurisdiction of Panchayati Raj institution.? a.19 b.29 c.39 d.49 200.In offices of both the President and the Vice-President become vacant at any time, who will discharge the functions of the President.? a.The Speaker of the Lok Sabha b.The Chief Election Commissioner c .Prime Minister d.Chief Justice of India | | | |  | |
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